This post is a recreation (but with modifications, including enhancements and expansions) of what I intended to post earlier but accidentally deleted.
Rattigan350, I agree with you that according to the New Testament Jesus is one of the witnesses of Jehovah. I also agree with you that the context of what was said is important. I also agree that it is not necessary that a specific phrase be used, provided the context clearly indicates the same meaning.
blondie, according to John 17:4-17 Jesus is one the witnesses of God the Father (Jehovah/YHWH). According to the chapter those verses are a record of some of what Jesus said in prayer to God the Father (Jehovah). Note the following. In verse 4 Jesus tells the Father that he (Jesus) has glorified the Father on the earth. Verse 6 (1984 NWT) records Jesus as saying to the Father "I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world." Verse 8 says that Jesus gave the men the sayings which the Father gave to Jesus, and Jesus says he came as the representative of God the Father. In verse 14 Jesus says he gave the word of the Father to the men. In verse 17 Jesus says that the Father's word is truth and in verse 18 Jesus tells the Father "you sent me forth into the world".
Clearly those verses in the Gospel of John (that is, the Gospel attributed as being according to John) indicate that according to that gospel Jesus is a witness of God the Father (Jehovah/YHWH). The NT also says that Jesus is a great prophet of Jehovah God the Father. Revelation 1:5 (1984 NWT) even says that Jesus Christ is "the Faithful Witness" and Revelation 3:14 (1984 NWT) says that the "Amen" (whom the verse says is the "the beginning of the creation of God", whom we know the Bible says is Jesus Christ) is "the faithful and true witness". Doesn't such mean that according to the NT that Jesus is thus a great witness of Jehovah God the Father?
Vanderhoven7, the fact God Jehovah (Jehovah God) did not make sure that his name was included in the New Testament, coupled with the fact that modern-day biblical scholars do not know for sure the correct pronunciation of his name, is part of the strong evidence to me that Jehovah God doesn't exist.
That is because the OT claims that numerous times YHWH, when speaking to a number of the prophets, said that his specific name of YHWH (Yahweh/Jehovah) must be proclaimed to the people! According to the OT YHWH wanted his name, not merely his reputation and accomplishments, but his literal specific name of YHWH, to be proclaimed extensively to the people! If such a God exists then it is shocking that the NT (in any of the extant ancient manuscripts) doesn't use his name even one time. But if Jehovah/Yahweh God doesn't exist, then there no mystery why the his name isn't used in the NT. These things are thus part of the evidence that the Bible (whether the OT or the NT or both, like the Apocrypha) is entirely the word of humans, and not at all the world of YHWH God or of any god.
Folks, regarding John chapter 17 there is something I find very puzzling in verse 11. There it claims that Jesus told God the Father "... your own name which you have given me ...". What name is this gospel account claiming Jesus said was the Holy Father's name which was given to Jesus?
Is it the name YHWH/Yahweh/Jehovah? If so, then why doesn't the NT ever mention that name in any of the extant ancient manuscripts? Granted NT says that the name Jesus was given to Christ by God (according to Matthew 1:20-21), and that name means "Jehovah is salvation", but that is not the same name as "Jehovah". The NT says that Christ, besides being named Jesus, was also called "Lord" and said to be "God/god". Are either of those 'names' the name of the Father that the NT says was given to Christ? In at least one verse Paul applied the word "Lord" to Jesus when quoting a verse in the OT in which the word "Lord" is used in the Greek Septuagint in place of the name Yahweh/Jehovah.
Matthew 1:22-23 says that Jesus was to be called "Immanuel", but nowhere else in the NT is that name used. I wonder why it is used nowhere else in the NT.